Two whole notes on the same measure, what does it mean?
up vote
21
down vote
favorite
I'm starting to analyze the Slavic March by Tchaikovsky. In measures 6, 8 and 9 the Clarinet has these repeated whole notes, but I don't know what they mean (I'm not a clarinetist). The bassoon/fagotto also has the same repeated whole notes in measure 8.
As far as I understand they're not the same as a "breve" since that wouldn't fit, is that correct?
notation
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
add a comment |
up vote
21
down vote
favorite
I'm starting to analyze the Slavic March by Tchaikovsky. In measures 6, 8 and 9 the Clarinet has these repeated whole notes, but I don't know what they mean (I'm not a clarinetist). The bassoon/fagotto also has the same repeated whole notes in measure 8.
As far as I understand they're not the same as a "breve" since that wouldn't fit, is that correct?
notation
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
2
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48
add a comment |
up vote
21
down vote
favorite
up vote
21
down vote
favorite
I'm starting to analyze the Slavic March by Tchaikovsky. In measures 6, 8 and 9 the Clarinet has these repeated whole notes, but I don't know what they mean (I'm not a clarinetist). The bassoon/fagotto also has the same repeated whole notes in measure 8.
As far as I understand they're not the same as a "breve" since that wouldn't fit, is that correct?
notation
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
I'm starting to analyze the Slavic March by Tchaikovsky. In measures 6, 8 and 9 the Clarinet has these repeated whole notes, but I don't know what they mean (I'm not a clarinetist). The bassoon/fagotto also has the same repeated whole notes in measure 8.
As far as I understand they're not the same as a "breve" since that wouldn't fit, is that correct?
notation
notation
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
edited Nov 5 at 20:48
Richard
35k677148
35k677148
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
asked Nov 5 at 19:45
Víctor López García
20816
20816
2
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48
add a comment |
2
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48
2
2
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
41
down vote
accepted
There are two clarinets (and two bassoons) playing in unison. This notation is one way of accounting for all of the notes.
Note that for all of the stemmed notes, there are stems pointing in both directions. Stems up are for the 1st player, and stems down for the 2nd. But since a whole note has no stems, they write it like that.
It looks kinda silly, and has fallen out of favor in modern scores.
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
8
down vote
Looking at Fagotti, there are two voices written. It's easy to see, with up and down tails. When a semibreve is written there is no tail to determine whether it's fag 1 or fag 2, so two semibreves on the same note have to be written instead. Same ruling applies to all instruments, clarinets included.
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
41
down vote
accepted
There are two clarinets (and two bassoons) playing in unison. This notation is one way of accounting for all of the notes.
Note that for all of the stemmed notes, there are stems pointing in both directions. Stems up are for the 1st player, and stems down for the 2nd. But since a whole note has no stems, they write it like that.
It looks kinda silly, and has fallen out of favor in modern scores.
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
41
down vote
accepted
There are two clarinets (and two bassoons) playing in unison. This notation is one way of accounting for all of the notes.
Note that for all of the stemmed notes, there are stems pointing in both directions. Stems up are for the 1st player, and stems down for the 2nd. But since a whole note has no stems, they write it like that.
It looks kinda silly, and has fallen out of favor in modern scores.
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
41
down vote
accepted
up vote
41
down vote
accepted
There are two clarinets (and two bassoons) playing in unison. This notation is one way of accounting for all of the notes.
Note that for all of the stemmed notes, there are stems pointing in both directions. Stems up are for the 1st player, and stems down for the 2nd. But since a whole note has no stems, they write it like that.
It looks kinda silly, and has fallen out of favor in modern scores.
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
There are two clarinets (and two bassoons) playing in unison. This notation is one way of accounting for all of the notes.
Note that for all of the stemmed notes, there are stems pointing in both directions. Stems up are for the 1st player, and stems down for the 2nd. But since a whole note has no stems, they write it like that.
It looks kinda silly, and has fallen out of favor in modern scores.
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
answered Nov 5 at 19:53
MattPutnam
13.6k22952
13.6k22952
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
|
show 1 more comment
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
Thanks, that makes sense! How would it be written on a modern score? Just a single whole note for both voices?
– Víctor López García
Nov 5 at 22:01
2
2
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
Opinions will differ, but I think the cleanest thing would be to write only a single line (so also get rid of the double stems) and mark the section "a2" (for "a due", translated: "for two").
– MattPutnam
Nov 5 at 22:14
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
@Matt How would that work in practice? It looks to me as if the two instruments in question sometimes play the same note and sometimes play different notes, and on a few occasions, one plays a note and one doesn’t. If you only wrote a single line and no double stems, how would each player know when they were supposed to play which note? (I assume two different notes would still have to be written as two different notes?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Nov 5 at 23:00
3
3
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
Also, this score is intended to be used by the conductor. The players will have their own parts, avoiding any confusion.
– Jos
Nov 6 at 10:52
5
5
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
There are also two horn parts shown. According to what I have read in Behind the Bars, writing the two parts on the same stave is still fine as long as the parts are rhythmically similar. When they go on for a long time playing the same note, that would be marked as "unison", but when they split to different notes, that would be marked "divisi." The score above is a little outdated in that way because both parts are written out despite having so much unison in that section. If the parts have significantly different rhythm, they need separate staves.
– Heather S.
Nov 6 at 12:09
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
8
down vote
Looking at Fagotti, there are two voices written. It's easy to see, with up and down tails. When a semibreve is written there is no tail to determine whether it's fag 1 or fag 2, so two semibreves on the same note have to be written instead. Same ruling applies to all instruments, clarinets included.
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
Looking at Fagotti, there are two voices written. It's easy to see, with up and down tails. When a semibreve is written there is no tail to determine whether it's fag 1 or fag 2, so two semibreves on the same note have to be written instead. Same ruling applies to all instruments, clarinets included.
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
up vote
8
down vote
Looking at Fagotti, there are two voices written. It's easy to see, with up and down tails. When a semibreve is written there is no tail to determine whether it's fag 1 or fag 2, so two semibreves on the same note have to be written instead. Same ruling applies to all instruments, clarinets included.
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
Looking at Fagotti, there are two voices written. It's easy to see, with up and down tails. When a semibreve is written there is no tail to determine whether it's fag 1 or fag 2, so two semibreves on the same note have to be written instead. Same ruling applies to all instruments, clarinets included.
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
answered Nov 5 at 20:15
Tim
93k1095236
93k1095236
add a comment |
add a comment |
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmusic.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f76187%2ftwo-whole-notes-on-the-same-measure-what-does-it-mean%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
2
Do the bars before & after have two voices?
– Tetsujin
Nov 5 at 19:48