What is the relationship between a step input and an integrator?





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2












$begingroup$


While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship, between a step input and an integrator?



Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$





EDIT:



If I am understanding the answers correctly, there is not relationship between a step INPUT and an integrator, but there is a relationship between a step FUNCTION and integrator, as explained below.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:33










  • $begingroup$
    To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:27












  • $begingroup$
    And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:58












  • $begingroup$
    Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 25 '18 at 9:39


















2












$begingroup$


While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship, between a step input and an integrator?



Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$





EDIT:



If I am understanding the answers correctly, there is not relationship between a step INPUT and an integrator, but there is a relationship between a step FUNCTION and integrator, as explained below.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:33










  • $begingroup$
    To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:27












  • $begingroup$
    And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:58












  • $begingroup$
    Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 25 '18 at 9:39














2












2








2


3



$begingroup$


While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship, between a step input and an integrator?



Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$





EDIT:



If I am understanding the answers correctly, there is not relationship between a step INPUT and an integrator, but there is a relationship between a step FUNCTION and integrator, as explained below.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$




While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship, between a step input and an integrator?



Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$





EDIT:



If I am understanding the answers correctly, there is not relationship between a step INPUT and an integrator, but there is a relationship between a step FUNCTION and integrator, as explained below.







control control-system






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Nov 26 '18 at 9:15







Rrz0

















asked Nov 24 '18 at 18:36









Rrz0Rrz0

983429




983429








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:33










  • $begingroup$
    To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:27












  • $begingroup$
    And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:58












  • $begingroup$
    Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 25 '18 at 9:39














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:33










  • $begingroup$
    To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:27












  • $begingroup$
    And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    $endgroup$
    – jonk
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:58












  • $begingroup$
    Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 25 '18 at 9:39








2




2




$begingroup$
The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
$endgroup$
– jonk
Nov 24 '18 at 19:33




$begingroup$
The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
$endgroup$
– jonk
Nov 24 '18 at 19:33












$begingroup$
To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 20:27






$begingroup$
To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 20:27














$begingroup$
And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 24 '18 at 21:52




$begingroup$
And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 24 '18 at 21:52












$begingroup$
Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
$endgroup$
– jonk
Nov 24 '18 at 21:58






$begingroup$
Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
$endgroup$
– jonk
Nov 24 '18 at 21:58














$begingroup$
Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 25 '18 at 9:39




$begingroup$
Just let's remind everyone what this question is: What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?. The key word here is INPUT and not output.
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 25 '18 at 9:39










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:44






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:50








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Neil_UK
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:38



















2












$begingroup$

enter image description here




What is the relationship if any, between a step INPUT and an
integrator?




For the purpose of reminding folk what this question is about I have edited the quote above (from the OP) to highlight the word INPUT. Folk seem to be reading response (or output) instead and that is somewhat baffling.



Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?



And a final reminder about the question asked: -






share|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 4




    $begingroup$
    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:48












  • $begingroup$
    @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:49










  • $begingroup$
    I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:57












  • $begingroup$
    @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:16












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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:44






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:50








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Neil_UK
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:38
















4












$begingroup$

Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:44






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:50








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Neil_UK
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:38














4












4








4





$begingroup$

Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Nov 24 '18 at 19:06









Neil_UKNeil_UK

79.3k285182




79.3k285182












  • $begingroup$
    When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:44






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:50








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Neil_UK
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:38


















  • $begingroup$
    When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 19:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:44






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    $endgroup$
    – TimWescott
    Nov 24 '18 at 20:50








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Neil_UK
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:38
















$begingroup$
When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 19:21






$begingroup$
When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 19:21






2




2




$begingroup$
A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
$endgroup$
– TimWescott
Nov 24 '18 at 20:44




$begingroup$
A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
$endgroup$
– TimWescott
Nov 24 '18 at 20:44




2




2




$begingroup$
If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
$endgroup$
– TimWescott
Nov 24 '18 at 20:50






$begingroup$
If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
$endgroup$
– TimWescott
Nov 24 '18 at 20:50






1




1




$begingroup$
The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 21:38




$begingroup$
The Dirac impulse is indeed the relationship. This contradicts the answer of Andy aka does it not?
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 21:38




1




1




$begingroup$
@Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
$endgroup$
– Neil_UK
Nov 25 '18 at 5:38




$begingroup$
@Rrz0 I never let contradicting Andy stand in the way of my posting the correct answer.
$endgroup$
– Neil_UK
Nov 25 '18 at 5:38













2












$begingroup$

enter image description here




What is the relationship if any, between a step INPUT and an
integrator?




For the purpose of reminding folk what this question is about I have edited the quote above (from the OP) to highlight the word INPUT. Folk seem to be reading response (or output) instead and that is somewhat baffling.



Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?



And a final reminder about the question asked: -






share|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 4




    $begingroup$
    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:48












  • $begingroup$
    @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:49










  • $begingroup$
    I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:57












  • $begingroup$
    @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:16
















2












$begingroup$

enter image description here




What is the relationship if any, between a step INPUT and an
integrator?




For the purpose of reminding folk what this question is about I have edited the quote above (from the OP) to highlight the word INPUT. Folk seem to be reading response (or output) instead and that is somewhat baffling.



Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?



And a final reminder about the question asked: -






share|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 4




    $begingroup$
    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:48












  • $begingroup$
    @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:49










  • $begingroup$
    I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:57












  • $begingroup$
    @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:16














2












2








2





$begingroup$

enter image description here




What is the relationship if any, between a step INPUT and an
integrator?




For the purpose of reminding folk what this question is about I have edited the quote above (from the OP) to highlight the word INPUT. Folk seem to be reading response (or output) instead and that is somewhat baffling.



Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?



And a final reminder about the question asked: -






share|improve this answer











$endgroup$



enter image description here




What is the relationship if any, between a step INPUT and an
integrator?




For the purpose of reminding folk what this question is about I have edited the quote above (from the OP) to highlight the word INPUT. Folk seem to be reading response (or output) instead and that is somewhat baffling.



Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?



And a final reminder about the question asked: -







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Nov 25 '18 at 9:46

























answered Nov 24 '18 at 18:43









Andy akaAndy aka

245k11186425




245k11186425








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:48












  • $begingroup$
    @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:49










  • $begingroup$
    I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:57












  • $begingroup$
    @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:16














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:48












  • $begingroup$
    @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    $endgroup$
    – Andy aka
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:49










  • $begingroup$
    I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    $endgroup$
    – Hearth
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 18:57












  • $begingroup$
    @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    $endgroup$
    – Rrz0
    Nov 24 '18 at 21:16








4




4




$begingroup$
While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 18:48






$begingroup$
While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 18:48














$begingroup$
@Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 24 '18 at 18:49




$begingroup$
@Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
$endgroup$
– Andy aka
Nov 24 '18 at 18:49












$begingroup$
I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 18:51




$begingroup$
I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
$endgroup$
– Hearth
Nov 24 '18 at 18:51




2




2




$begingroup$
Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 18:57






$begingroup$
Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 18:57














$begingroup$
@Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 21:16




$begingroup$
@Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
$endgroup$
– Rrz0
Nov 24 '18 at 21:16


















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