What does 'for' mean in 'We are done for'?





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There is an English expression do for, which means to kill, to execute, to ruin, to defeat etc. and this expression seems to always be used in passive voice: e.g.) We are done for.



I understand this is like an idiom, but why is the preposition for used?
Most prepositions have so many meanings to them, and I would like to know what for in this case means.



edit:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/for
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/for



In the definitions of the above links, which for do you all think the for in done for is the closest to?



edit 2:
I don't think the for is dangling, but I just want to know why for is used. Like, for normally means purpose, cause, or to be given, etc.
But the for in question means quite opposite.










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  • 4




    Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
    – Carly
    Nov 5 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:11










  • @KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
    – Keep these mind
    Nov 5 at 17:16








  • 2




    @Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:34






  • 1




    Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
    – DLosc
    Nov 5 at 20:26



















up vote
54
down vote

favorite
6












There is an English expression do for, which means to kill, to execute, to ruin, to defeat etc. and this expression seems to always be used in passive voice: e.g.) We are done for.



I understand this is like an idiom, but why is the preposition for used?
Most prepositions have so many meanings to them, and I would like to know what for in this case means.



edit:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/for
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/for



In the definitions of the above links, which for do you all think the for in done for is the closest to?



edit 2:
I don't think the for is dangling, but I just want to know why for is used. Like, for normally means purpose, cause, or to be given, etc.
But the for in question means quite opposite.










share|improve this question




















  • 4




    Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
    – Carly
    Nov 5 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:11










  • @KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
    – Keep these mind
    Nov 5 at 17:16








  • 2




    @Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:34






  • 1




    Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
    – DLosc
    Nov 5 at 20:26















up vote
54
down vote

favorite
6









up vote
54
down vote

favorite
6






6





There is an English expression do for, which means to kill, to execute, to ruin, to defeat etc. and this expression seems to always be used in passive voice: e.g.) We are done for.



I understand this is like an idiom, but why is the preposition for used?
Most prepositions have so many meanings to them, and I would like to know what for in this case means.



edit:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/for
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/for



In the definitions of the above links, which for do you all think the for in done for is the closest to?



edit 2:
I don't think the for is dangling, but I just want to know why for is used. Like, for normally means purpose, cause, or to be given, etc.
But the for in question means quite opposite.










share|improve this question















There is an English expression do for, which means to kill, to execute, to ruin, to defeat etc. and this expression seems to always be used in passive voice: e.g.) We are done for.



I understand this is like an idiom, but why is the preposition for used?
Most prepositions have so many meanings to them, and I would like to know what for in this case means.



edit:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/for
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/for



In the definitions of the above links, which for do you all think the for in done for is the closest to?



edit 2:
I don't think the for is dangling, but I just want to know why for is used. Like, for normally means purpose, cause, or to be given, etc.
But the for in question means quite opposite.







prepositions phrasal-verbs






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edited Nov 6 at 6:16









Sven Yargs

109k18234489




109k18234489










asked Nov 5 at 16:50









Jessica.D

383126




383126








  • 4




    Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
    – Carly
    Nov 5 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:11










  • @KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
    – Keep these mind
    Nov 5 at 17:16








  • 2




    @Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:34






  • 1




    Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
    – DLosc
    Nov 5 at 20:26
















  • 4




    Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
    – Carly
    Nov 5 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:11










  • @KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
    – Keep these mind
    Nov 5 at 17:16








  • 2




    @Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
    – Kate Bunting
    Nov 5 at 17:34






  • 1




    Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
    – DLosc
    Nov 5 at 20:26










4




4




Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
– Carly
Nov 5 at 16:58




Just guessing, but it could be a shortened form of the phrase "for good." Thus, it would read, "We are done for good." Meaning, there's no coming back from it, and it's over. I don't think the verb phrase "do for" is a thing, though, as I've not heard or read, "He will do for him" with the meaning "to kill"
– Carly
Nov 5 at 16:58




2




2




Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
– Kate Bunting
Nov 5 at 17:11




Yes, it is - macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/do-for
– Kate Bunting
Nov 5 at 17:11












@KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
– Keep these mind
Nov 5 at 17:16






@KateBunting Who/what are you replying to? (Your link doesn't have the word "good".)
– Keep these mind
Nov 5 at 17:16






2




2




@Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
– Kate Bunting
Nov 5 at 17:34




@Keepthesemind I was replying to Carly, who did not think 'do for' was 'a thing'.
– Kate Bunting
Nov 5 at 17:34




1




1




Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
– DLosc
Nov 5 at 20:26






Yes, except the word order is different, usually: "I did you in."
– DLosc
Nov 5 at 20:26












10 Answers
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"For" at this point doesn't seem to have any meaning here, although it does add a little emphasis.



Specifically, it looks to me like "done for" could be actually a variation of the even older, now-obsolete verb "fordo".



The earliest example in the OED for "done for" is from a1500:




By thre skyllis may hit come to Why hit [sc. a stillborn child] is don for [Lansd. fordone] alsoo.
Sidrak & Bokkus (Laud)




"[Lansd. fordone]" means that in another manuscript they used "fordone" instead of "don[e] for". (Unfortunately I haven't been able to access either version.)



If you look at this free definition for "fordo" (for Middle English, but still applicable), you'll see it is essentially a synonym for "done for". "Fordo" is ancient (first attested in English in the year c900) and apparently derives from "Proto-Germanic *fardōną, *fradōną (“to ruin, destroy”)".



According to the OED, the "for" prefix in "fordo" means:




Implying destructive, painful, or prejudicial effect, as in fordeem, fordo




It's worth mentioning that the now-obsolete word "fordeem" is a synonym because it means "to ruin or destroy", although it also means "to condemn". There are other obsolete words that also have this "for" meaning destruction prefix but I can't think of any current ones. Of course there are plenty of current verbs with other senses of the same "for" prefix: forgive, forget, forbid, etc.






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  • 19




    If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
    – Ilmari Karonen
    Nov 6 at 0:33








  • 9




    For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
    – Ed999
    Nov 6 at 1:55






  • 3




    Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
    – Acccumulation
    Nov 6 at 18:58










  • Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
    – Haydentech
    Nov 7 at 22:42










  • @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
    – Pierre Arlaud
    Nov 9 at 10:04


















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tl;dr - It's not the word you think it is



Short answer: the "for" isn't a preposition, it's part of the verb "to do for", it doesn't have any meaning on its own, and the reason why that word and not another are lost in the mists of time - if there ever was a reason.



Phrasal verbs



"To do for" is an example of what's known as a phrasal verb in English. The verb is to do for, and it's transitive (i.e., it takes a subject, so you have to say "to do for (object)"). This can look confusing if you try to analyse it as the construction "to do (X) for (Y)", but in that case the verb is simply "do", and "for" is acting in its normal role as preposition.



The closest synonym for "to do for" is to doom, although many of the common uses can also carry the meaning of "to kill". "To do for" is quite informal, though - you won't see this in a coroner's report, but you will often hear people on the street using it (e.g. "It was the drink that did for him in the end", or "He did for my shin with that last tackle!").



As you note, "We are done for" is simply the passive-voice version of the active sentence "(someone) has done for us", meaning that someone has doomed us to a fate, although that fate does not have to be death. It's almost a stock-phrase, and it's slightly comedic: this phrase is often uttered by villains in British comedy writing - there it is best translated as "all is lost, and we will be caught and imprisoned".



"Do for" is used in its active sense, but very rarely in American English. I have heard British speakers saying things like "I did for my leg last night" meaning that they've injured themselves, but it's very much informal, and it may be regional (North of England rather than South).



The bits don't mean anything on their own



Some advice: do not try to look for some kind of deeper meaning behind the two parts of this kind of verb. Some make sense ("take in", "drop off", "run out"), but others don't really ("do in", "let on", "give up", "turn up"). Just accept that in English, there are some verbs that are made up of a "verby" word and a "prepositiony" word that act together to create a completely new, and usually idiomatic, meaning.



( This isn't just English, by the way. German has many such idiomatic phrasal verbs such as umbringen. That one looks like it should mean "bring around", from "um" and "bringen", but it actually means "to kill" - however, the sentence "ich bringe die Kinder um 08:00" doesn't mean you're planning a murder!)



Here are some other common phrasal verbs of the same type as "do for":




  • I give in : I admit defeat

  • She gave out about... : (first meaning) She complained about...

  • The bearing gave out : (second meaning) The bearing failed

  • I give up : I quit

  • I did in my knee : (informal) I damaged my knee

  • I did up the room : I decorated the room

  • She turned up today : she appeared today

  • She turned down the invitation : she declined the invitation

  • She had a grey dress on : She wore a grey dress


My personal experience (I speak British English, but work extensively with Americans) would suggest that there are more of these verbs in regular use in British English than American, but they're a common feature of English, and they're not something you can avoid.






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    Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
    – Chappo
    Nov 7 at 11:39


















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According to Green’s Dictionary of Slang done for is the adjectival form of the phrasal verb do (a bad turn) for meaning to injure, kill. The preposition for would derive from the verbal form.



Done for adj.



(do for v./ext. of done adj.)




1821:
without a chance, hopeless, defeated, lost, abandoned, ‘finished’.




  • 1843 [UK] ‘Bill Truck’ Man o’ War’s Man - 112: He’s done for now,




Do for verb:



[Do v.1 (1)/abbr. SE phr. do a bad turn for





to beat up, to injure, to murder.





  • 1751 [UK] Fielding Amelia II 70: He said something, too, about my master [...] he said he would do for him, I am sure he said that; and other wicked, bad words, too.







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  • 3




    // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
    – Nathan Basanese
    Nov 6 at 1:21










  • @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
    – user240918
    Nov 6 at 7:04










  • @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
    – alephzero
    Nov 6 at 14:16










  • @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
    – David Richerby
    Nov 7 at 16:45


















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The meaning of "done for" here cannot be found by combining meanings of "done" and "for" somehow.




done for
PHRASE
informal

In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out.

‘if the guard sees us, we're done for’




Oxford Dictionaries






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  • 2




    Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
    – Ed999
    Nov 6 at 4:43






  • 1




    @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
    – Nuclear Wang
    Nov 6 at 13:38






  • 1




    Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
    – GEdgar
    Nov 6 at 14:05










  • @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
    – alephzero
    Nov 6 at 14:17










  • @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
    – Acccumulation
    Nov 6 at 18:59


















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3
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The for in to do for is acting as part of a phrasal verb, not a separate preposition.



English has the concept of phrasal verbs, which is taking a verb and combining it with an adverb or a preposition to create a new verb. This new verb loses the meanings of its individual parts and takes on a brand new meaning of its own.



A simple example is the verb to pick up. Compare the following sentences.




  1. Did you pick this ball?

  2. Did you pick up this ball?


The first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



Your example works the same way. The verb to do is clearly different from the verb to do for. The second sentence may sound weird because of the archaic nature of that form, but it's basically the same as above.




  1. Did you do her?

  2. Did you do for her?


Again, the first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



To sum up, the for in your example does not have a separate and distinct meaning. Instead, it changes the the verb to do to a different verb to do for that as a whole has its own meaning.



A more thorough explanation and several other examples of phrasal verbs, may be found here: https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/phrasal-verbs.htm






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  • Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
    – Chappo
    Nov 7 at 4:53






  • 1




    It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
    – Alex Selby
    Nov 7 at 12:44


















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In colloquial usage, "to do for someone" can mean "to perform a service for" them, especially as an actual servant.



If the service was done in the past, you could say "Someone is one who has been done for," which can be shortened to "Someone is done for."



If the service hasn't been performed yet but is considered inevitable, the person is "as good as done for or simply done for.



In your question, "to do for someone" is ironic. The "service" to be performed is to kill them or thwart their intentions and it's definitely (in the speaker's opinion) going to happen. "He doesn't know it yet, but he's a walking dead man."



In any case, "someone" is the implied object of the preposition "for." No mystery there.






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    up vote
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    down vote













    The idiomatic expressions "done for" means finished in the sense of defeated or killed and the precise meaning depends on the context. Idiomatic expressions in English cannot be interpreted or explained grammatically. The preposition "for" usually takes an object but in this case the expression is a synonym. I have never heard it used in another context such for example in the sentence "Bill did for him" or "Team A did for team B". "Done for" is a colloquialism.






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      up vote
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      down vote













      Some food for thought of where this might come from



      Done is the past form of do




      Middle English do, first person singular of Old English don "make,
      act, perform, cause; to put, to place," from West Germanic *don (cf.
      Old Saxon duan , Old Frisian dua , Dutch doen , Old High German tuon ,
      German tun ), from PIE root *dhe- "to put, place, do, make" (see
      factitious).



      - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/do




      While for as a prefix has the meaning




      a prefix meaning “away,” “off,” “to the uttermost,” “extremely,”
      “wrongly,” or imparting a negative or privative force, occurring in
      verbs and nouns formed from verbs of Old or Middle English origin,
      many of which are now obsolete or archaic:



      - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/for?s=t




      So from this, the rough translation of "done for" to "have been made away" may be related or have come from it's old-english/germanic roots.






      share|improve this answer




























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        To "do" is to make death certain.



        So to "do for" somebody, is to make death certain, for them.



        So it's the meaning "pertaining to, or affecting".






        share|improve this answer




























          up vote
          -2
          down vote













          The O.E.D. gives 12 definitions of the word 'for' in the link you posted (the American dictionary page linked to gives many more, but I lost the will to live after the first three dozen, so let's just stick to the O.E.D. for now).



          The answer is easy: none of the 12 definitions listed is appropriate for the word 'for' in the context you've cited ('done for').



          The O.E.D. is mostly only listing definitions of the word that fulfill some kind of counting function ('for 300 yards', 'for 12 years', 'for £1.20', 'for the 3rd time', '2 bottles for your 1') or some form of possession (it lists objects, persons and feelings belonging to someone: 'you', 'Napoleon', 'everyone', 'the department', 'the Open University', 'her family').



          Significantly, it gives a dozen definitions - all of which have some merit as independent, separate meanings of the word, in various contexts.



          The significance, to my mind, is that there are so many definitions: perhaps more than for any other word in the dictionary. And that, even so, the list given does not cover the usage you are citing (in 'done for').



          This suggests, to me, that the word 'for', by reason of its extreme antiquity, deriving from the Anglo-Saxon roots of the English language (reference has been made to it being used in c.900 AD), only has a meaning in context. Or perhaps one should say, it has so many meanings - due to its antiquity - because it has acquired its meaning from its context (unlike most words, which can generally be understood apart from any context).



          Short words of Anglo-Saxon origin (for, of, at) tend to be inordinately flexible in meaning and usage. It suggests that these are words which the language built up around. They have no invariant meaning, and only acquire meaning from the context. There is, accordingly, more truth than you suspected in your remark that 'most prepositions have so many meanings'.



          Most words have multiple meanings, and those which have been around the longest have acquired the most. No word ever came 'pre-defined', all words originally acquired their meaning from their context. But there are few words you could have chosen which would have made that point more clearly than this one.



          In the context you've specified, the word 'for' can only mean doomed. It can't possibly mean anything else. Yet the O.E.D. gives it 12 different meanings, in 12 different contexts, none of them remotely similar to this. The implication is that one could go on, indefinitely, citing examples of this word in different contexts. The O.E.D. doesn't attempt that. Dictionaries have limitations. Languages don't.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 2




            The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
            – Laurel
            Nov 6 at 3:58










          • I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 4:26










          • So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
            – jsw29
            Nov 6 at 17:08










          • @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
            – Ed999
            Nov 12 at 3:18










          • Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
            – Ed999
            Nov 12 at 3:27













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          up vote
          69
          down vote



          accepted










          "For" at this point doesn't seem to have any meaning here, although it does add a little emphasis.



          Specifically, it looks to me like "done for" could be actually a variation of the even older, now-obsolete verb "fordo".



          The earliest example in the OED for "done for" is from a1500:




          By thre skyllis may hit come to Why hit [sc. a stillborn child] is don for [Lansd. fordone] alsoo.
          Sidrak & Bokkus (Laud)




          "[Lansd. fordone]" means that in another manuscript they used "fordone" instead of "don[e] for". (Unfortunately I haven't been able to access either version.)



          If you look at this free definition for "fordo" (for Middle English, but still applicable), you'll see it is essentially a synonym for "done for". "Fordo" is ancient (first attested in English in the year c900) and apparently derives from "Proto-Germanic *fardōną, *fradōną (“to ruin, destroy”)".



          According to the OED, the "for" prefix in "fordo" means:




          Implying destructive, painful, or prejudicial effect, as in fordeem, fordo




          It's worth mentioning that the now-obsolete word "fordeem" is a synonym because it means "to ruin or destroy", although it also means "to condemn". There are other obsolete words that also have this "for" meaning destruction prefix but I can't think of any current ones. Of course there are plenty of current verbs with other senses of the same "for" prefix: forgive, forget, forbid, etc.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 19




            If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
            – Ilmari Karonen
            Nov 6 at 0:33








          • 9




            For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 1:55






          • 3




            Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:58










          • Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
            – Haydentech
            Nov 7 at 22:42










          • @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
            – Pierre Arlaud
            Nov 9 at 10:04















          up vote
          69
          down vote



          accepted










          "For" at this point doesn't seem to have any meaning here, although it does add a little emphasis.



          Specifically, it looks to me like "done for" could be actually a variation of the even older, now-obsolete verb "fordo".



          The earliest example in the OED for "done for" is from a1500:




          By thre skyllis may hit come to Why hit [sc. a stillborn child] is don for [Lansd. fordone] alsoo.
          Sidrak & Bokkus (Laud)




          "[Lansd. fordone]" means that in another manuscript they used "fordone" instead of "don[e] for". (Unfortunately I haven't been able to access either version.)



          If you look at this free definition for "fordo" (for Middle English, but still applicable), you'll see it is essentially a synonym for "done for". "Fordo" is ancient (first attested in English in the year c900) and apparently derives from "Proto-Germanic *fardōną, *fradōną (“to ruin, destroy”)".



          According to the OED, the "for" prefix in "fordo" means:




          Implying destructive, painful, or prejudicial effect, as in fordeem, fordo




          It's worth mentioning that the now-obsolete word "fordeem" is a synonym because it means "to ruin or destroy", although it also means "to condemn". There are other obsolete words that also have this "for" meaning destruction prefix but I can't think of any current ones. Of course there are plenty of current verbs with other senses of the same "for" prefix: forgive, forget, forbid, etc.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 19




            If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
            – Ilmari Karonen
            Nov 6 at 0:33








          • 9




            For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 1:55






          • 3




            Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:58










          • Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
            – Haydentech
            Nov 7 at 22:42










          • @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
            – Pierre Arlaud
            Nov 9 at 10:04













          up vote
          69
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          69
          down vote



          accepted






          "For" at this point doesn't seem to have any meaning here, although it does add a little emphasis.



          Specifically, it looks to me like "done for" could be actually a variation of the even older, now-obsolete verb "fordo".



          The earliest example in the OED for "done for" is from a1500:




          By thre skyllis may hit come to Why hit [sc. a stillborn child] is don for [Lansd. fordone] alsoo.
          Sidrak & Bokkus (Laud)




          "[Lansd. fordone]" means that in another manuscript they used "fordone" instead of "don[e] for". (Unfortunately I haven't been able to access either version.)



          If you look at this free definition for "fordo" (for Middle English, but still applicable), you'll see it is essentially a synonym for "done for". "Fordo" is ancient (first attested in English in the year c900) and apparently derives from "Proto-Germanic *fardōną, *fradōną (“to ruin, destroy”)".



          According to the OED, the "for" prefix in "fordo" means:




          Implying destructive, painful, or prejudicial effect, as in fordeem, fordo




          It's worth mentioning that the now-obsolete word "fordeem" is a synonym because it means "to ruin or destroy", although it also means "to condemn". There are other obsolete words that also have this "for" meaning destruction prefix but I can't think of any current ones. Of course there are plenty of current verbs with other senses of the same "for" prefix: forgive, forget, forbid, etc.






          share|improve this answer














          "For" at this point doesn't seem to have any meaning here, although it does add a little emphasis.



          Specifically, it looks to me like "done for" could be actually a variation of the even older, now-obsolete verb "fordo".



          The earliest example in the OED for "done for" is from a1500:




          By thre skyllis may hit come to Why hit [sc. a stillborn child] is don for [Lansd. fordone] alsoo.
          Sidrak & Bokkus (Laud)




          "[Lansd. fordone]" means that in another manuscript they used "fordone" instead of "don[e] for". (Unfortunately I haven't been able to access either version.)



          If you look at this free definition for "fordo" (for Middle English, but still applicable), you'll see it is essentially a synonym for "done for". "Fordo" is ancient (first attested in English in the year c900) and apparently derives from "Proto-Germanic *fardōną, *fradōną (“to ruin, destroy”)".



          According to the OED, the "for" prefix in "fordo" means:




          Implying destructive, painful, or prejudicial effect, as in fordeem, fordo




          It's worth mentioning that the now-obsolete word "fordeem" is a synonym because it means "to ruin or destroy", although it also means "to condemn". There are other obsolete words that also have this "for" meaning destruction prefix but I can't think of any current ones. Of course there are plenty of current verbs with other senses of the same "for" prefix: forgive, forget, forbid, etc.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 8 at 3:49

























          answered Nov 5 at 17:42









          Laurel

          28.8k654103




          28.8k654103








          • 19




            If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
            – Ilmari Karonen
            Nov 6 at 0:33








          • 9




            For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 1:55






          • 3




            Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:58










          • Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
            – Haydentech
            Nov 7 at 22:42










          • @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
            – Pierre Arlaud
            Nov 9 at 10:04














          • 19




            If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
            – Ilmari Karonen
            Nov 6 at 0:33








          • 9




            For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 1:55






          • 3




            Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:58










          • Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
            – Haydentech
            Nov 7 at 22:42










          • @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
            – Pierre Arlaud
            Nov 9 at 10:04








          19




          19




          If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
          – Ilmari Karonen
          Nov 6 at 0:33






          If correct (and I see no reason to doubt this, given the existence of the Dutch and German cognates), this presumably means that the "for" in "fordo" / "do for" is etymologically the anglicized form of the Proto-Germanic prefix *fra-, meaning "off" or "away". So "do for" literally means "do away". Nice.
          – Ilmari Karonen
          Nov 6 at 0:33






          9




          9




          For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
          – Ed999
          Nov 6 at 1:55




          For those seeking an example from contemporary speech, the obvious example, then, is do away with.
          – Ed999
          Nov 6 at 1:55




          3




          3




          Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
          – Acccumulation
          Nov 6 at 18:58




          Anther examples of the "for" prefix is "forgo" (not to be confused with "forego").
          – Acccumulation
          Nov 6 at 18:58












          Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
          – Haydentech
          Nov 7 at 22:42




          Unlike @IlmariKaronen I would interpret the "for" component as "fore", as in English "before" and "afore". So in modern terms, the speaker is so certain that the sentence object is "done" that it might as well have already happened "before" now.
          – Haydentech
          Nov 7 at 22:42












          @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
          – Pierre Arlaud
          Nov 9 at 10:04




          @Acccumulation not to be confused with Fargo :)
          – Pierre Arlaud
          Nov 9 at 10:04












          up vote
          23
          down vote













          tl;dr - It's not the word you think it is



          Short answer: the "for" isn't a preposition, it's part of the verb "to do for", it doesn't have any meaning on its own, and the reason why that word and not another are lost in the mists of time - if there ever was a reason.



          Phrasal verbs



          "To do for" is an example of what's known as a phrasal verb in English. The verb is to do for, and it's transitive (i.e., it takes a subject, so you have to say "to do for (object)"). This can look confusing if you try to analyse it as the construction "to do (X) for (Y)", but in that case the verb is simply "do", and "for" is acting in its normal role as preposition.



          The closest synonym for "to do for" is to doom, although many of the common uses can also carry the meaning of "to kill". "To do for" is quite informal, though - you won't see this in a coroner's report, but you will often hear people on the street using it (e.g. "It was the drink that did for him in the end", or "He did for my shin with that last tackle!").



          As you note, "We are done for" is simply the passive-voice version of the active sentence "(someone) has done for us", meaning that someone has doomed us to a fate, although that fate does not have to be death. It's almost a stock-phrase, and it's slightly comedic: this phrase is often uttered by villains in British comedy writing - there it is best translated as "all is lost, and we will be caught and imprisoned".



          "Do for" is used in its active sense, but very rarely in American English. I have heard British speakers saying things like "I did for my leg last night" meaning that they've injured themselves, but it's very much informal, and it may be regional (North of England rather than South).



          The bits don't mean anything on their own



          Some advice: do not try to look for some kind of deeper meaning behind the two parts of this kind of verb. Some make sense ("take in", "drop off", "run out"), but others don't really ("do in", "let on", "give up", "turn up"). Just accept that in English, there are some verbs that are made up of a "verby" word and a "prepositiony" word that act together to create a completely new, and usually idiomatic, meaning.



          ( This isn't just English, by the way. German has many such idiomatic phrasal verbs such as umbringen. That one looks like it should mean "bring around", from "um" and "bringen", but it actually means "to kill" - however, the sentence "ich bringe die Kinder um 08:00" doesn't mean you're planning a murder!)



          Here are some other common phrasal verbs of the same type as "do for":




          • I give in : I admit defeat

          • She gave out about... : (first meaning) She complained about...

          • The bearing gave out : (second meaning) The bearing failed

          • I give up : I quit

          • I did in my knee : (informal) I damaged my knee

          • I did up the room : I decorated the room

          • She turned up today : she appeared today

          • She turned down the invitation : she declined the invitation

          • She had a grey dress on : She wore a grey dress


          My personal experience (I speak British English, but work extensively with Americans) would suggest that there are more of these verbs in regular use in British English than American, but they're a common feature of English, and they're not something you can avoid.






          share|improve this answer

















          • 6




            Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 11:39















          up vote
          23
          down vote













          tl;dr - It's not the word you think it is



          Short answer: the "for" isn't a preposition, it's part of the verb "to do for", it doesn't have any meaning on its own, and the reason why that word and not another are lost in the mists of time - if there ever was a reason.



          Phrasal verbs



          "To do for" is an example of what's known as a phrasal verb in English. The verb is to do for, and it's transitive (i.e., it takes a subject, so you have to say "to do for (object)"). This can look confusing if you try to analyse it as the construction "to do (X) for (Y)", but in that case the verb is simply "do", and "for" is acting in its normal role as preposition.



          The closest synonym for "to do for" is to doom, although many of the common uses can also carry the meaning of "to kill". "To do for" is quite informal, though - you won't see this in a coroner's report, but you will often hear people on the street using it (e.g. "It was the drink that did for him in the end", or "He did for my shin with that last tackle!").



          As you note, "We are done for" is simply the passive-voice version of the active sentence "(someone) has done for us", meaning that someone has doomed us to a fate, although that fate does not have to be death. It's almost a stock-phrase, and it's slightly comedic: this phrase is often uttered by villains in British comedy writing - there it is best translated as "all is lost, and we will be caught and imprisoned".



          "Do for" is used in its active sense, but very rarely in American English. I have heard British speakers saying things like "I did for my leg last night" meaning that they've injured themselves, but it's very much informal, and it may be regional (North of England rather than South).



          The bits don't mean anything on their own



          Some advice: do not try to look for some kind of deeper meaning behind the two parts of this kind of verb. Some make sense ("take in", "drop off", "run out"), but others don't really ("do in", "let on", "give up", "turn up"). Just accept that in English, there are some verbs that are made up of a "verby" word and a "prepositiony" word that act together to create a completely new, and usually idiomatic, meaning.



          ( This isn't just English, by the way. German has many such idiomatic phrasal verbs such as umbringen. That one looks like it should mean "bring around", from "um" and "bringen", but it actually means "to kill" - however, the sentence "ich bringe die Kinder um 08:00" doesn't mean you're planning a murder!)



          Here are some other common phrasal verbs of the same type as "do for":




          • I give in : I admit defeat

          • She gave out about... : (first meaning) She complained about...

          • The bearing gave out : (second meaning) The bearing failed

          • I give up : I quit

          • I did in my knee : (informal) I damaged my knee

          • I did up the room : I decorated the room

          • She turned up today : she appeared today

          • She turned down the invitation : she declined the invitation

          • She had a grey dress on : She wore a grey dress


          My personal experience (I speak British English, but work extensively with Americans) would suggest that there are more of these verbs in regular use in British English than American, but they're a common feature of English, and they're not something you can avoid.






          share|improve this answer

















          • 6




            Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 11:39













          up vote
          23
          down vote










          up vote
          23
          down vote









          tl;dr - It's not the word you think it is



          Short answer: the "for" isn't a preposition, it's part of the verb "to do for", it doesn't have any meaning on its own, and the reason why that word and not another are lost in the mists of time - if there ever was a reason.



          Phrasal verbs



          "To do for" is an example of what's known as a phrasal verb in English. The verb is to do for, and it's transitive (i.e., it takes a subject, so you have to say "to do for (object)"). This can look confusing if you try to analyse it as the construction "to do (X) for (Y)", but in that case the verb is simply "do", and "for" is acting in its normal role as preposition.



          The closest synonym for "to do for" is to doom, although many of the common uses can also carry the meaning of "to kill". "To do for" is quite informal, though - you won't see this in a coroner's report, but you will often hear people on the street using it (e.g. "It was the drink that did for him in the end", or "He did for my shin with that last tackle!").



          As you note, "We are done for" is simply the passive-voice version of the active sentence "(someone) has done for us", meaning that someone has doomed us to a fate, although that fate does not have to be death. It's almost a stock-phrase, and it's slightly comedic: this phrase is often uttered by villains in British comedy writing - there it is best translated as "all is lost, and we will be caught and imprisoned".



          "Do for" is used in its active sense, but very rarely in American English. I have heard British speakers saying things like "I did for my leg last night" meaning that they've injured themselves, but it's very much informal, and it may be regional (North of England rather than South).



          The bits don't mean anything on their own



          Some advice: do not try to look for some kind of deeper meaning behind the two parts of this kind of verb. Some make sense ("take in", "drop off", "run out"), but others don't really ("do in", "let on", "give up", "turn up"). Just accept that in English, there are some verbs that are made up of a "verby" word and a "prepositiony" word that act together to create a completely new, and usually idiomatic, meaning.



          ( This isn't just English, by the way. German has many such idiomatic phrasal verbs such as umbringen. That one looks like it should mean "bring around", from "um" and "bringen", but it actually means "to kill" - however, the sentence "ich bringe die Kinder um 08:00" doesn't mean you're planning a murder!)



          Here are some other common phrasal verbs of the same type as "do for":




          • I give in : I admit defeat

          • She gave out about... : (first meaning) She complained about...

          • The bearing gave out : (second meaning) The bearing failed

          • I give up : I quit

          • I did in my knee : (informal) I damaged my knee

          • I did up the room : I decorated the room

          • She turned up today : she appeared today

          • She turned down the invitation : she declined the invitation

          • She had a grey dress on : She wore a grey dress


          My personal experience (I speak British English, but work extensively with Americans) would suggest that there are more of these verbs in regular use in British English than American, but they're a common feature of English, and they're not something you can avoid.






          share|improve this answer












          tl;dr - It's not the word you think it is



          Short answer: the "for" isn't a preposition, it's part of the verb "to do for", it doesn't have any meaning on its own, and the reason why that word and not another are lost in the mists of time - if there ever was a reason.



          Phrasal verbs



          "To do for" is an example of what's known as a phrasal verb in English. The verb is to do for, and it's transitive (i.e., it takes a subject, so you have to say "to do for (object)"). This can look confusing if you try to analyse it as the construction "to do (X) for (Y)", but in that case the verb is simply "do", and "for" is acting in its normal role as preposition.



          The closest synonym for "to do for" is to doom, although many of the common uses can also carry the meaning of "to kill". "To do for" is quite informal, though - you won't see this in a coroner's report, but you will often hear people on the street using it (e.g. "It was the drink that did for him in the end", or "He did for my shin with that last tackle!").



          As you note, "We are done for" is simply the passive-voice version of the active sentence "(someone) has done for us", meaning that someone has doomed us to a fate, although that fate does not have to be death. It's almost a stock-phrase, and it's slightly comedic: this phrase is often uttered by villains in British comedy writing - there it is best translated as "all is lost, and we will be caught and imprisoned".



          "Do for" is used in its active sense, but very rarely in American English. I have heard British speakers saying things like "I did for my leg last night" meaning that they've injured themselves, but it's very much informal, and it may be regional (North of England rather than South).



          The bits don't mean anything on their own



          Some advice: do not try to look for some kind of deeper meaning behind the two parts of this kind of verb. Some make sense ("take in", "drop off", "run out"), but others don't really ("do in", "let on", "give up", "turn up"). Just accept that in English, there are some verbs that are made up of a "verby" word and a "prepositiony" word that act together to create a completely new, and usually idiomatic, meaning.



          ( This isn't just English, by the way. German has many such idiomatic phrasal verbs such as umbringen. That one looks like it should mean "bring around", from "um" and "bringen", but it actually means "to kill" - however, the sentence "ich bringe die Kinder um 08:00" doesn't mean you're planning a murder!)



          Here are some other common phrasal verbs of the same type as "do for":




          • I give in : I admit defeat

          • She gave out about... : (first meaning) She complained about...

          • The bearing gave out : (second meaning) The bearing failed

          • I give up : I quit

          • I did in my knee : (informal) I damaged my knee

          • I did up the room : I decorated the room

          • She turned up today : she appeared today

          • She turned down the invitation : she declined the invitation

          • She had a grey dress on : She wore a grey dress


          My personal experience (I speak British English, but work extensively with Americans) would suggest that there are more of these verbs in regular use in British English than American, but they're a common feature of English, and they're not something you can avoid.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered Nov 7 at 11:19









          KrisW

          6168




          6168








          • 6




            Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 11:39














          • 6




            Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 11:39








          6




          6




          Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
          – Chappo
          Nov 7 at 11:39




          Welcome to our site, and congratulations on an answer that meets all our expectations in terms of being authoritative, detailed, and explaining why it is correct. +1 is not enough ;-)
          – Chappo
          Nov 7 at 11:39










          up vote
          11
          down vote













          According to Green’s Dictionary of Slang done for is the adjectival form of the phrasal verb do (a bad turn) for meaning to injure, kill. The preposition for would derive from the verbal form.



          Done for adj.



          (do for v./ext. of done adj.)




          1821:
          without a chance, hopeless, defeated, lost, abandoned, ‘finished’.




          • 1843 [UK] ‘Bill Truck’ Man o’ War’s Man - 112: He’s done for now,




          Do for verb:



          [Do v.1 (1)/abbr. SE phr. do a bad turn for





          to beat up, to injure, to murder.





          • 1751 [UK] Fielding Amelia II 70: He said something, too, about my master [...] he said he would do for him, I am sure he said that; and other wicked, bad words, too.







          share|improve this answer

















          • 3




            // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
            – Nathan Basanese
            Nov 6 at 1:21










          • @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
            – user240918
            Nov 6 at 7:04










          • @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:16










          • @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
            – David Richerby
            Nov 7 at 16:45















          up vote
          11
          down vote













          According to Green’s Dictionary of Slang done for is the adjectival form of the phrasal verb do (a bad turn) for meaning to injure, kill. The preposition for would derive from the verbal form.



          Done for adj.



          (do for v./ext. of done adj.)




          1821:
          without a chance, hopeless, defeated, lost, abandoned, ‘finished’.




          • 1843 [UK] ‘Bill Truck’ Man o’ War’s Man - 112: He’s done for now,




          Do for verb:



          [Do v.1 (1)/abbr. SE phr. do a bad turn for





          to beat up, to injure, to murder.





          • 1751 [UK] Fielding Amelia II 70: He said something, too, about my master [...] he said he would do for him, I am sure he said that; and other wicked, bad words, too.







          share|improve this answer

















          • 3




            // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
            – Nathan Basanese
            Nov 6 at 1:21










          • @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
            – user240918
            Nov 6 at 7:04










          • @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:16










          • @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
            – David Richerby
            Nov 7 at 16:45













          up vote
          11
          down vote










          up vote
          11
          down vote









          According to Green’s Dictionary of Slang done for is the adjectival form of the phrasal verb do (a bad turn) for meaning to injure, kill. The preposition for would derive from the verbal form.



          Done for adj.



          (do for v./ext. of done adj.)




          1821:
          without a chance, hopeless, defeated, lost, abandoned, ‘finished’.




          • 1843 [UK] ‘Bill Truck’ Man o’ War’s Man - 112: He’s done for now,




          Do for verb:



          [Do v.1 (1)/abbr. SE phr. do a bad turn for





          to beat up, to injure, to murder.





          • 1751 [UK] Fielding Amelia II 70: He said something, too, about my master [...] he said he would do for him, I am sure he said that; and other wicked, bad words, too.







          share|improve this answer












          According to Green’s Dictionary of Slang done for is the adjectival form of the phrasal verb do (a bad turn) for meaning to injure, kill. The preposition for would derive from the verbal form.



          Done for adj.



          (do for v./ext. of done adj.)




          1821:
          without a chance, hopeless, defeated, lost, abandoned, ‘finished’.




          • 1843 [UK] ‘Bill Truck’ Man o’ War’s Man - 112: He’s done for now,




          Do for verb:



          [Do v.1 (1)/abbr. SE phr. do a bad turn for





          to beat up, to injure, to murder.





          • 1751 [UK] Fielding Amelia II 70: He said something, too, about my master [...] he said he would do for him, I am sure he said that; and other wicked, bad words, too.








          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered Nov 5 at 20:22









          user240918

          22.7k861142




          22.7k861142








          • 3




            // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
            – Nathan Basanese
            Nov 6 at 1:21










          • @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
            – user240918
            Nov 6 at 7:04










          • @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:16










          • @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
            – David Richerby
            Nov 7 at 16:45














          • 3




            // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
            – Nathan Basanese
            Nov 6 at 1:21










          • @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
            – user240918
            Nov 6 at 7:04










          • @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:16










          • @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
            – David Richerby
            Nov 7 at 16:45








          3




          3




          // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
          – Nathan Basanese
          Nov 6 at 1:21




          // , Why the dangling "for", though? This answer still is not direct enough to the question's intent.
          – Nathan Basanese
          Nov 6 at 1:21












          @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
          – user240918
          Nov 6 at 7:04




          @NathanBasanese - it is from a previous expression as explained, where for was used to indicate for whom the “bad turn” was.
          – user240918
          Nov 6 at 7:04












          @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
          – alephzero
          Nov 6 at 14:16




          @NathanBasanese In the active voice (as in the Fielding quote) there must be something after "do", since "he would do him" seems a grammatical error compared with the correct "he would do the homework". "Fordo" may have evolved into "do for" in the a similar pattern to "without" and the Scottish "outwith" (which is often used by Scots when speaking nominally British English.)
          – alephzero
          Nov 6 at 14:16












          @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
          – David Richerby
          Nov 7 at 16:45




          @alephzero "He would do him" is grammatically fine. The OED gives the following, among many definitions of do: "19. transitive. slang. To have sexual intercourse with. Also intransitive."
          – David Richerby
          Nov 7 at 16:45










          up vote
          3
          down vote













          The meaning of "done for" here cannot be found by combining meanings of "done" and "for" somehow.




          done for
          PHRASE
          informal

          In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out.

          ‘if the guard sees us, we're done for’




          Oxford Dictionaries






          share|improve this answer

















          • 2




            Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 4:43






          • 1




            @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
            – Nuclear Wang
            Nov 6 at 13:38






          • 1




            Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
            – GEdgar
            Nov 6 at 14:05










          • @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:17










          • @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:59















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          The meaning of "done for" here cannot be found by combining meanings of "done" and "for" somehow.




          done for
          PHRASE
          informal

          In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out.

          ‘if the guard sees us, we're done for’




          Oxford Dictionaries






          share|improve this answer

















          • 2




            Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 4:43






          • 1




            @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
            – Nuclear Wang
            Nov 6 at 13:38






          • 1




            Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
            – GEdgar
            Nov 6 at 14:05










          • @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:17










          • @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:59













          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          The meaning of "done for" here cannot be found by combining meanings of "done" and "for" somehow.




          done for
          PHRASE
          informal

          In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out.

          ‘if the guard sees us, we're done for’




          Oxford Dictionaries






          share|improve this answer












          The meaning of "done for" here cannot be found by combining meanings of "done" and "for" somehow.




          done for
          PHRASE
          informal

          In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out.

          ‘if the guard sees us, we're done for’




          Oxford Dictionaries







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered Nov 5 at 18:07









          GEdgar

          13k22043




          13k22043








          • 2




            Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 4:43






          • 1




            @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
            – Nuclear Wang
            Nov 6 at 13:38






          • 1




            Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
            – GEdgar
            Nov 6 at 14:05










          • @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:17










          • @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:59














          • 2




            Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
            – Ed999
            Nov 6 at 4:43






          • 1




            @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
            – Nuclear Wang
            Nov 6 at 13:38






          • 1




            Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
            – GEdgar
            Nov 6 at 14:05










          • @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
            – alephzero
            Nov 6 at 14:17










          • @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
            – Acccumulation
            Nov 6 at 18:59








          2




          2




          Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
          – Ed999
          Nov 6 at 4:43




          Of course the meaning can be found by combining them! As a Germanic-origin preposition, meaning 'before', for combines with done to mean we are doomed (future tense), distinguishing done for from done in meaning dead (past tense). The use of 'before' gives the phrase (done for) a meaning in the future: the death is yet to come, we are before it. The use of in gives the other phrase (done in) its past tense: the death has occured. But Jessica is not asking what the term means, she is asking which dictionary definition, of 12 possibilities, covers it. However none of them do.
          – Ed999
          Nov 6 at 4:43




          1




          1




          @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
          – Nuclear Wang
          Nov 6 at 13:38




          @Ed999 I think the point is that you can't combine any individual meanings of done and for to arrive at the meaning of done for, you need to asses the meaning of the combined phrase as a whole.
          – Nuclear Wang
          Nov 6 at 13:38




          1




          1




          Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
          – GEdgar
          Nov 6 at 14:05




          Once we understand "done for", we can try "done in" and "done up".
          – GEdgar
          Nov 6 at 14:05












          @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
          – alephzero
          Nov 6 at 14:17




          @GEdgar - and explain why "done down" is not the opposite of "done up" :)
          – alephzero
          Nov 6 at 14:17












          @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
          – Acccumulation
          Nov 6 at 18:59




          @Ed999 "For" and "fore" are differnt words.
          – Acccumulation
          Nov 6 at 18:59










          up vote
          3
          down vote













          The for in to do for is acting as part of a phrasal verb, not a separate preposition.



          English has the concept of phrasal verbs, which is taking a verb and combining it with an adverb or a preposition to create a new verb. This new verb loses the meanings of its individual parts and takes on a brand new meaning of its own.



          A simple example is the verb to pick up. Compare the following sentences.




          1. Did you pick this ball?

          2. Did you pick up this ball?


          The first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          Your example works the same way. The verb to do is clearly different from the verb to do for. The second sentence may sound weird because of the archaic nature of that form, but it's basically the same as above.




          1. Did you do her?

          2. Did you do for her?


          Again, the first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          To sum up, the for in your example does not have a separate and distinct meaning. Instead, it changes the the verb to do to a different verb to do for that as a whole has its own meaning.



          A more thorough explanation and several other examples of phrasal verbs, may be found here: https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/phrasal-verbs.htm






          share|improve this answer























          • Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 4:53






          • 1




            It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
            – Alex Selby
            Nov 7 at 12:44















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          The for in to do for is acting as part of a phrasal verb, not a separate preposition.



          English has the concept of phrasal verbs, which is taking a verb and combining it with an adverb or a preposition to create a new verb. This new verb loses the meanings of its individual parts and takes on a brand new meaning of its own.



          A simple example is the verb to pick up. Compare the following sentences.




          1. Did you pick this ball?

          2. Did you pick up this ball?


          The first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          Your example works the same way. The verb to do is clearly different from the verb to do for. The second sentence may sound weird because of the archaic nature of that form, but it's basically the same as above.




          1. Did you do her?

          2. Did you do for her?


          Again, the first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          To sum up, the for in your example does not have a separate and distinct meaning. Instead, it changes the the verb to do to a different verb to do for that as a whole has its own meaning.



          A more thorough explanation and several other examples of phrasal verbs, may be found here: https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/phrasal-verbs.htm






          share|improve this answer























          • Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 4:53






          • 1




            It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
            – Alex Selby
            Nov 7 at 12:44













          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          The for in to do for is acting as part of a phrasal verb, not a separate preposition.



          English has the concept of phrasal verbs, which is taking a verb and combining it with an adverb or a preposition to create a new verb. This new verb loses the meanings of its individual parts and takes on a brand new meaning of its own.



          A simple example is the verb to pick up. Compare the following sentences.




          1. Did you pick this ball?

          2. Did you pick up this ball?


          The first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          Your example works the same way. The verb to do is clearly different from the verb to do for. The second sentence may sound weird because of the archaic nature of that form, but it's basically the same as above.




          1. Did you do her?

          2. Did you do for her?


          Again, the first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          To sum up, the for in your example does not have a separate and distinct meaning. Instead, it changes the the verb to do to a different verb to do for that as a whole has its own meaning.



          A more thorough explanation and several other examples of phrasal verbs, may be found here: https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/phrasal-verbs.htm






          share|improve this answer














          The for in to do for is acting as part of a phrasal verb, not a separate preposition.



          English has the concept of phrasal verbs, which is taking a verb and combining it with an adverb or a preposition to create a new verb. This new verb loses the meanings of its individual parts and takes on a brand new meaning of its own.



          A simple example is the verb to pick up. Compare the following sentences.




          1. Did you pick this ball?

          2. Did you pick up this ball?


          The first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          Your example works the same way. The verb to do is clearly different from the verb to do for. The second sentence may sound weird because of the archaic nature of that form, but it's basically the same as above.




          1. Did you do her?

          2. Did you do for her?


          Again, the first sentence has a clearly different meaning from the second.



          To sum up, the for in your example does not have a separate and distinct meaning. Instead, it changes the the verb to do to a different verb to do for that as a whole has its own meaning.



          A more thorough explanation and several other examples of phrasal verbs, may be found here: https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/phrasal-verbs.htm







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 7 at 21:34

























          answered Nov 6 at 22:12









          Hyrum Tanner

          312




          312












          • Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 4:53






          • 1




            It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
            – Alex Selby
            Nov 7 at 12:44


















          • Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
            – Chappo
            Nov 7 at 4:53






          • 1




            It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
            – Alex Selby
            Nov 7 at 12:44
















          Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
          – Chappo
          Nov 7 at 4:53




          Welcome to ELU. This post shows promise as a good answer, but how do I know that you haven't made up "satellite verb" or that the expression exists but you've used it incorrectly? The solution is to cite an authoritative reference (preferably with a hyperlink). If you edit your post to provide this detail, I'll happily upvote you. For further guidance, see How to Answer. Make sure you also take the Tour :-)
          – Chappo
          Nov 7 at 4:53




          1




          1




          It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
          – Alex Selby
          Nov 7 at 12:44




          It's a nice idea, but it looks like you've actually illustrated that "to do for" and "to pick up" behave very differently. The third example for "to do for", "Did you do her for?", is ungrammatical, in contrast to "Did you pick this ball up?" which is fine. (The second example, "Did you do for her?", is an unlikely thing to say, but perfectly grammatical.)
          – Alex Selby
          Nov 7 at 12:44










          up vote
          1
          down vote













          In colloquial usage, "to do for someone" can mean "to perform a service for" them, especially as an actual servant.



          If the service was done in the past, you could say "Someone is one who has been done for," which can be shortened to "Someone is done for."



          If the service hasn't been performed yet but is considered inevitable, the person is "as good as done for or simply done for.



          In your question, "to do for someone" is ironic. The "service" to be performed is to kill them or thwart their intentions and it's definitely (in the speaker's opinion) going to happen. "He doesn't know it yet, but he's a walking dead man."



          In any case, "someone" is the implied object of the preposition "for." No mystery there.






          share|improve this answer



























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            In colloquial usage, "to do for someone" can mean "to perform a service for" them, especially as an actual servant.



            If the service was done in the past, you could say "Someone is one who has been done for," which can be shortened to "Someone is done for."



            If the service hasn't been performed yet but is considered inevitable, the person is "as good as done for or simply done for.



            In your question, "to do for someone" is ironic. The "service" to be performed is to kill them or thwart their intentions and it's definitely (in the speaker's opinion) going to happen. "He doesn't know it yet, but he's a walking dead man."



            In any case, "someone" is the implied object of the preposition "for." No mystery there.






            share|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote










              up vote
              1
              down vote









              In colloquial usage, "to do for someone" can mean "to perform a service for" them, especially as an actual servant.



              If the service was done in the past, you could say "Someone is one who has been done for," which can be shortened to "Someone is done for."



              If the service hasn't been performed yet but is considered inevitable, the person is "as good as done for or simply done for.



              In your question, "to do for someone" is ironic. The "service" to be performed is to kill them or thwart their intentions and it's definitely (in the speaker's opinion) going to happen. "He doesn't know it yet, but he's a walking dead man."



              In any case, "someone" is the implied object of the preposition "for." No mystery there.






              share|improve this answer














              In colloquial usage, "to do for someone" can mean "to perform a service for" them, especially as an actual servant.



              If the service was done in the past, you could say "Someone is one who has been done for," which can be shortened to "Someone is done for."



              If the service hasn't been performed yet but is considered inevitable, the person is "as good as done for or simply done for.



              In your question, "to do for someone" is ironic. The "service" to be performed is to kill them or thwart their intentions and it's definitely (in the speaker's opinion) going to happen. "He doesn't know it yet, but he's a walking dead man."



              In any case, "someone" is the implied object of the preposition "for." No mystery there.







              share|improve this answer














              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer








              edited Nov 7 at 17:02

























              answered Nov 7 at 16:47









              Bugs

              112




              112






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  The idiomatic expressions "done for" means finished in the sense of defeated or killed and the precise meaning depends on the context. Idiomatic expressions in English cannot be interpreted or explained grammatically. The preposition "for" usually takes an object but in this case the expression is a synonym. I have never heard it used in another context such for example in the sentence "Bill did for him" or "Team A did for team B". "Done for" is a colloquialism.






                  share|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    The idiomatic expressions "done for" means finished in the sense of defeated or killed and the precise meaning depends on the context. Idiomatic expressions in English cannot be interpreted or explained grammatically. The preposition "for" usually takes an object but in this case the expression is a synonym. I have never heard it used in another context such for example in the sentence "Bill did for him" or "Team A did for team B". "Done for" is a colloquialism.






                    share|improve this answer























                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote









                      The idiomatic expressions "done for" means finished in the sense of defeated or killed and the precise meaning depends on the context. Idiomatic expressions in English cannot be interpreted or explained grammatically. The preposition "for" usually takes an object but in this case the expression is a synonym. I have never heard it used in another context such for example in the sentence "Bill did for him" or "Team A did for team B". "Done for" is a colloquialism.






                      share|improve this answer












                      The idiomatic expressions "done for" means finished in the sense of defeated or killed and the precise meaning depends on the context. Idiomatic expressions in English cannot be interpreted or explained grammatically. The preposition "for" usually takes an object but in this case the expression is a synonym. I have never heard it used in another context such for example in the sentence "Bill did for him" or "Team A did for team B". "Done for" is a colloquialism.







                      share|improve this answer












                      share|improve this answer



                      share|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 6 at 20:31









                      Aled Cymro

                      1694




                      1694






















                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Some food for thought of where this might come from



                          Done is the past form of do




                          Middle English do, first person singular of Old English don "make,
                          act, perform, cause; to put, to place," from West Germanic *don (cf.
                          Old Saxon duan , Old Frisian dua , Dutch doen , Old High German tuon ,
                          German tun ), from PIE root *dhe- "to put, place, do, make" (see
                          factitious).



                          - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/do




                          While for as a prefix has the meaning




                          a prefix meaning “away,” “off,” “to the uttermost,” “extremely,”
                          “wrongly,” or imparting a negative or privative force, occurring in
                          verbs and nouns formed from verbs of Old or Middle English origin,
                          many of which are now obsolete or archaic:



                          - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/for?s=t




                          So from this, the rough translation of "done for" to "have been made away" may be related or have come from it's old-english/germanic roots.






                          share|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote













                            Some food for thought of where this might come from



                            Done is the past form of do




                            Middle English do, first person singular of Old English don "make,
                            act, perform, cause; to put, to place," from West Germanic *don (cf.
                            Old Saxon duan , Old Frisian dua , Dutch doen , Old High German tuon ,
                            German tun ), from PIE root *dhe- "to put, place, do, make" (see
                            factitious).



                            - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/do




                            While for as a prefix has the meaning




                            a prefix meaning “away,” “off,” “to the uttermost,” “extremely,”
                            “wrongly,” or imparting a negative or privative force, occurring in
                            verbs and nouns formed from verbs of Old or Middle English origin,
                            many of which are now obsolete or archaic:



                            - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/for?s=t




                            So from this, the rough translation of "done for" to "have been made away" may be related or have come from it's old-english/germanic roots.






                            share|improve this answer























                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote









                              Some food for thought of where this might come from



                              Done is the past form of do




                              Middle English do, first person singular of Old English don "make,
                              act, perform, cause; to put, to place," from West Germanic *don (cf.
                              Old Saxon duan , Old Frisian dua , Dutch doen , Old High German tuon ,
                              German tun ), from PIE root *dhe- "to put, place, do, make" (see
                              factitious).



                              - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/do




                              While for as a prefix has the meaning




                              a prefix meaning “away,” “off,” “to the uttermost,” “extremely,”
                              “wrongly,” or imparting a negative or privative force, occurring in
                              verbs and nouns formed from verbs of Old or Middle English origin,
                              many of which are now obsolete or archaic:



                              - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/for?s=t




                              So from this, the rough translation of "done for" to "have been made away" may be related or have come from it's old-english/germanic roots.






                              share|improve this answer












                              Some food for thought of where this might come from



                              Done is the past form of do




                              Middle English do, first person singular of Old English don "make,
                              act, perform, cause; to put, to place," from West Germanic *don (cf.
                              Old Saxon duan , Old Frisian dua , Dutch doen , Old High German tuon ,
                              German tun ), from PIE root *dhe- "to put, place, do, make" (see
                              factitious).



                              - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/do




                              While for as a prefix has the meaning




                              a prefix meaning “away,” “off,” “to the uttermost,” “extremely,”
                              “wrongly,” or imparting a negative or privative force, occurring in
                              verbs and nouns formed from verbs of Old or Middle English origin,
                              many of which are now obsolete or archaic:



                              - https://www.dictionary.com/browse/for?s=t




                              So from this, the rough translation of "done for" to "have been made away" may be related or have come from it's old-english/germanic roots.







                              share|improve this answer












                              share|improve this answer



                              share|improve this answer










                              answered Nov 7 at 16:15









                              Tezra

                              20118




                              20118






















                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  To "do" is to make death certain.



                                  So to "do for" somebody, is to make death certain, for them.



                                  So it's the meaning "pertaining to, or affecting".






                                  share|improve this answer

























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote













                                    To "do" is to make death certain.



                                    So to "do for" somebody, is to make death certain, for them.



                                    So it's the meaning "pertaining to, or affecting".






                                    share|improve this answer























                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote









                                      To "do" is to make death certain.



                                      So to "do for" somebody, is to make death certain, for them.



                                      So it's the meaning "pertaining to, or affecting".






                                      share|improve this answer












                                      To "do" is to make death certain.



                                      So to "do for" somebody, is to make death certain, for them.



                                      So it's the meaning "pertaining to, or affecting".







                                      share|improve this answer












                                      share|improve this answer



                                      share|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 8 at 3:23









                                      Robert Frost

                                      1417




                                      1417






















                                          up vote
                                          -2
                                          down vote













                                          The O.E.D. gives 12 definitions of the word 'for' in the link you posted (the American dictionary page linked to gives many more, but I lost the will to live after the first three dozen, so let's just stick to the O.E.D. for now).



                                          The answer is easy: none of the 12 definitions listed is appropriate for the word 'for' in the context you've cited ('done for').



                                          The O.E.D. is mostly only listing definitions of the word that fulfill some kind of counting function ('for 300 yards', 'for 12 years', 'for £1.20', 'for the 3rd time', '2 bottles for your 1') or some form of possession (it lists objects, persons and feelings belonging to someone: 'you', 'Napoleon', 'everyone', 'the department', 'the Open University', 'her family').



                                          Significantly, it gives a dozen definitions - all of which have some merit as independent, separate meanings of the word, in various contexts.



                                          The significance, to my mind, is that there are so many definitions: perhaps more than for any other word in the dictionary. And that, even so, the list given does not cover the usage you are citing (in 'done for').



                                          This suggests, to me, that the word 'for', by reason of its extreme antiquity, deriving from the Anglo-Saxon roots of the English language (reference has been made to it being used in c.900 AD), only has a meaning in context. Or perhaps one should say, it has so many meanings - due to its antiquity - because it has acquired its meaning from its context (unlike most words, which can generally be understood apart from any context).



                                          Short words of Anglo-Saxon origin (for, of, at) tend to be inordinately flexible in meaning and usage. It suggests that these are words which the language built up around. They have no invariant meaning, and only acquire meaning from the context. There is, accordingly, more truth than you suspected in your remark that 'most prepositions have so many meanings'.



                                          Most words have multiple meanings, and those which have been around the longest have acquired the most. No word ever came 'pre-defined', all words originally acquired their meaning from their context. But there are few words you could have chosen which would have made that point more clearly than this one.



                                          In the context you've specified, the word 'for' can only mean doomed. It can't possibly mean anything else. Yet the O.E.D. gives it 12 different meanings, in 12 different contexts, none of them remotely similar to this. The implication is that one could go on, indefinitely, citing examples of this word in different contexts. The O.E.D. doesn't attempt that. Dictionaries have limitations. Languages don't.






                                          share|improve this answer



















                                          • 2




                                            The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                            – Laurel
                                            Nov 6 at 3:58










                                          • I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 6 at 4:26










                                          • So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                            – jsw29
                                            Nov 6 at 17:08










                                          • @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:18










                                          • Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:27

















                                          up vote
                                          -2
                                          down vote













                                          The O.E.D. gives 12 definitions of the word 'for' in the link you posted (the American dictionary page linked to gives many more, but I lost the will to live after the first three dozen, so let's just stick to the O.E.D. for now).



                                          The answer is easy: none of the 12 definitions listed is appropriate for the word 'for' in the context you've cited ('done for').



                                          The O.E.D. is mostly only listing definitions of the word that fulfill some kind of counting function ('for 300 yards', 'for 12 years', 'for £1.20', 'for the 3rd time', '2 bottles for your 1') or some form of possession (it lists objects, persons and feelings belonging to someone: 'you', 'Napoleon', 'everyone', 'the department', 'the Open University', 'her family').



                                          Significantly, it gives a dozen definitions - all of which have some merit as independent, separate meanings of the word, in various contexts.



                                          The significance, to my mind, is that there are so many definitions: perhaps more than for any other word in the dictionary. And that, even so, the list given does not cover the usage you are citing (in 'done for').



                                          This suggests, to me, that the word 'for', by reason of its extreme antiquity, deriving from the Anglo-Saxon roots of the English language (reference has been made to it being used in c.900 AD), only has a meaning in context. Or perhaps one should say, it has so many meanings - due to its antiquity - because it has acquired its meaning from its context (unlike most words, which can generally be understood apart from any context).



                                          Short words of Anglo-Saxon origin (for, of, at) tend to be inordinately flexible in meaning and usage. It suggests that these are words which the language built up around. They have no invariant meaning, and only acquire meaning from the context. There is, accordingly, more truth than you suspected in your remark that 'most prepositions have so many meanings'.



                                          Most words have multiple meanings, and those which have been around the longest have acquired the most. No word ever came 'pre-defined', all words originally acquired their meaning from their context. But there are few words you could have chosen which would have made that point more clearly than this one.



                                          In the context you've specified, the word 'for' can only mean doomed. It can't possibly mean anything else. Yet the O.E.D. gives it 12 different meanings, in 12 different contexts, none of them remotely similar to this. The implication is that one could go on, indefinitely, citing examples of this word in different contexts. The O.E.D. doesn't attempt that. Dictionaries have limitations. Languages don't.






                                          share|improve this answer



















                                          • 2




                                            The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                            – Laurel
                                            Nov 6 at 3:58










                                          • I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 6 at 4:26










                                          • So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                            – jsw29
                                            Nov 6 at 17:08










                                          • @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:18










                                          • Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:27















                                          up vote
                                          -2
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          -2
                                          down vote









                                          The O.E.D. gives 12 definitions of the word 'for' in the link you posted (the American dictionary page linked to gives many more, but I lost the will to live after the first three dozen, so let's just stick to the O.E.D. for now).



                                          The answer is easy: none of the 12 definitions listed is appropriate for the word 'for' in the context you've cited ('done for').



                                          The O.E.D. is mostly only listing definitions of the word that fulfill some kind of counting function ('for 300 yards', 'for 12 years', 'for £1.20', 'for the 3rd time', '2 bottles for your 1') or some form of possession (it lists objects, persons and feelings belonging to someone: 'you', 'Napoleon', 'everyone', 'the department', 'the Open University', 'her family').



                                          Significantly, it gives a dozen definitions - all of which have some merit as independent, separate meanings of the word, in various contexts.



                                          The significance, to my mind, is that there are so many definitions: perhaps more than for any other word in the dictionary. And that, even so, the list given does not cover the usage you are citing (in 'done for').



                                          This suggests, to me, that the word 'for', by reason of its extreme antiquity, deriving from the Anglo-Saxon roots of the English language (reference has been made to it being used in c.900 AD), only has a meaning in context. Or perhaps one should say, it has so many meanings - due to its antiquity - because it has acquired its meaning from its context (unlike most words, which can generally be understood apart from any context).



                                          Short words of Anglo-Saxon origin (for, of, at) tend to be inordinately flexible in meaning and usage. It suggests that these are words which the language built up around. They have no invariant meaning, and only acquire meaning from the context. There is, accordingly, more truth than you suspected in your remark that 'most prepositions have so many meanings'.



                                          Most words have multiple meanings, and those which have been around the longest have acquired the most. No word ever came 'pre-defined', all words originally acquired their meaning from their context. But there are few words you could have chosen which would have made that point more clearly than this one.



                                          In the context you've specified, the word 'for' can only mean doomed. It can't possibly mean anything else. Yet the O.E.D. gives it 12 different meanings, in 12 different contexts, none of them remotely similar to this. The implication is that one could go on, indefinitely, citing examples of this word in different contexts. The O.E.D. doesn't attempt that. Dictionaries have limitations. Languages don't.






                                          share|improve this answer














                                          The O.E.D. gives 12 definitions of the word 'for' in the link you posted (the American dictionary page linked to gives many more, but I lost the will to live after the first three dozen, so let's just stick to the O.E.D. for now).



                                          The answer is easy: none of the 12 definitions listed is appropriate for the word 'for' in the context you've cited ('done for').



                                          The O.E.D. is mostly only listing definitions of the word that fulfill some kind of counting function ('for 300 yards', 'for 12 years', 'for £1.20', 'for the 3rd time', '2 bottles for your 1') or some form of possession (it lists objects, persons and feelings belonging to someone: 'you', 'Napoleon', 'everyone', 'the department', 'the Open University', 'her family').



                                          Significantly, it gives a dozen definitions - all of which have some merit as independent, separate meanings of the word, in various contexts.



                                          The significance, to my mind, is that there are so many definitions: perhaps more than for any other word in the dictionary. And that, even so, the list given does not cover the usage you are citing (in 'done for').



                                          This suggests, to me, that the word 'for', by reason of its extreme antiquity, deriving from the Anglo-Saxon roots of the English language (reference has been made to it being used in c.900 AD), only has a meaning in context. Or perhaps one should say, it has so many meanings - due to its antiquity - because it has acquired its meaning from its context (unlike most words, which can generally be understood apart from any context).



                                          Short words of Anglo-Saxon origin (for, of, at) tend to be inordinately flexible in meaning and usage. It suggests that these are words which the language built up around. They have no invariant meaning, and only acquire meaning from the context. There is, accordingly, more truth than you suspected in your remark that 'most prepositions have so many meanings'.



                                          Most words have multiple meanings, and those which have been around the longest have acquired the most. No word ever came 'pre-defined', all words originally acquired their meaning from their context. But there are few words you could have chosen which would have made that point more clearly than this one.



                                          In the context you've specified, the word 'for' can only mean doomed. It can't possibly mean anything else. Yet the O.E.D. gives it 12 different meanings, in 12 different contexts, none of them remotely similar to this. The implication is that one could go on, indefinitely, citing examples of this word in different contexts. The O.E.D. doesn't attempt that. Dictionaries have limitations. Languages don't.







                                          share|improve this answer














                                          share|improve this answer



                                          share|improve this answer








                                          edited Nov 6 at 3:44

























                                          answered Nov 6 at 3:34









                                          Ed999

                                          1875




                                          1875








                                          • 2




                                            The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                            – Laurel
                                            Nov 6 at 3:58










                                          • I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 6 at 4:26










                                          • So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                            – jsw29
                                            Nov 6 at 17:08










                                          • @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:18










                                          • Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:27
















                                          • 2




                                            The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                            – Laurel
                                            Nov 6 at 3:58










                                          • I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 6 at 4:26










                                          • So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                            – jsw29
                                            Nov 6 at 17:08










                                          • @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:18










                                          • Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                            – Ed999
                                            Nov 12 at 3:27










                                          2




                                          2




                                          The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                          – Laurel
                                          Nov 6 at 3:58




                                          The dictionary you're talking about is probably "Oxford Dictionaries", not the OED, which is a completely different dictionary with a completely different purpose (history).
                                          – Laurel
                                          Nov 6 at 3:58












                                          I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 6 at 4:26




                                          I mean the link Jessica posted on her question, but checking in my own copy of the Concise O.E.D. it gives 11 definitions under 'preposition' and 2 under 'conjunction'. And under 'origin' it specifies (probably) a reduction of a Germanic preposition meaning ‘before’ (in place or time).
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 6 at 4:26












                                          So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                          – jsw29
                                          Nov 6 at 17:08




                                          So, can this answer be summarized as: the question posed by the OP is unanswerable?
                                          – jsw29
                                          Nov 6 at 17:08












                                          @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 12 at 3:18




                                          @jsw29 : No, the correct answer to the o/p's question (and in fact the answer I have given) is that the phrase in question is not defined in the O.E.D., nor in the online dictionary which Laurel refers to.
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 12 at 3:18












                                          Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 12 at 3:27






                                          Is the meaning of the term undefinable? I think not. The clearest meaning of done for (the future tense of done in), really simply meaning - in both cases - dead, is (in its literal meaning) do (done) away with, from do (which is clear enough) + away (one of the original meanings of 'for' in Old English).
                                          – Ed999
                                          Nov 12 at 3:27




















                                           

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